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Apr 11, 2017 at 8:47 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Dec 21, 2016 at 11:14 answer added Manuel timeline score: 2
Dec 20, 2016 at 16:20 comment added Andy aka I think you may be plugging the output into something that may only have (say) 1 kohm input impedance. Note that these amps have an output impedance of 4.7 kohm thus, you might see a signal reduction (into 1 kohm) of over 13 dB.
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:53 comment added user16324 It isn't quite straightforward thanks to R5(R8), plus the gain setting and EQ are intimately interlinked. Best option is to simulate first, then halve R6/R7 and see the changes. You probably need to double C5,C6, C22,C23 to maintain the LF time constants (correct bass response curve), and you may need to change R5/R8 too.
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:49 comment added Bimpelrekkie I initially thought R28/R18 were responsible for the gain but that doesn't seem to be the case. No those are for biasing, roughly the gain is (R9+R10) / R6. But if you change any of those values then the EQ curve will also change. You would be better off adding an amplifier (without EQ) behind this circuit.
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:44 comment added Manuel There's nothing wrong with per say, it's just quite a bit lower than the rest of the line level input which leads to possible jump scares and possibly angry neighbors when I forget and switch sources.
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:43 comment added Vladimir Cravero What do you mean 'the output is low'?
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:35 comment added JIm Dearden I would have looked at R6/R7 but at 1k0 its already low so at best you might only get another 3dB
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:31 review First posts
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:35
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:30 comment added Manuel Any EE lesson is of course welcome. I'd love to learn more about how (and why) this works as it does, if that's not asking too much!
Dec 20, 2016 at 12:28 history asked Manuel CC BY-SA 3.0