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Jan 12, 2018 at 20:04 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Dec 12, 2017 at 12:15 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Nov 2, 2017 at 9:58 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Sep 30, 2017 at 23:11 history tweeted twitter.com/StackElectronix/status/914266426692730880
Sep 30, 2017 at 17:39 answer added sundar timeline score: 2
Jul 24, 2017 at 18:21 comment added Jo123 Ok. Thanks!! I've to look up what a source follower is in order to understand your response.
Jul 24, 2017 at 17:50 comment added Andy aka I don't like your explanation but I like mine.... M1 is a source follower so it sets a near constant voltage on M2 drain. This means M2 doesn't suffer from miller capacitance effects. Current through M2 drain is transferred to a voltage at M1 drain because of the high compliance of the current source (normally a resistor).
Jul 24, 2017 at 17:38 comment added Jo123 Yes, the output impedance of a common source amplifier is high because the MOSFET ID-VDS characteristics show in saturation nearly a horizontal line. Right? So if the upper explanation is not accurate, is it possible at all to explain it in a descriptive way, let's say based on the MOSFET characteristics?
Jul 24, 2017 at 16:27 comment added Andy aka If you are asking questions about the output impedance being high then you are not beginning at the right point. Do you understand why the output impedance of a common emitter (or common source) amplifier is high?
Jul 24, 2017 at 15:45 review First posts
Jul 24, 2017 at 19:36
Jul 24, 2017 at 15:40 history asked Jo123 CC BY-SA 3.0