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Feb 19, 2022 at 20:26 answer added qrk timeline score: 4
Feb 19, 2022 at 19:16 comment added Lush Maybe I'm wrong, the cutoff frequency is equal to 1.6kHz for a 1k-100nF. So the effective noise bandwidth will be 1.57 * 1.6kHz =2.51kHz. How to use this information to calculate the output noise? Is it 0.001 * sqrt(2.51k)?
Feb 19, 2022 at 19:02 comment added Andy aka After some research, I just found the "Equivalent Noise Bandwidth" that not really help me. - then you probably misunderstood it because, as far as I'm aware it is the definitive way to calculate the RMS noise coming from filtered white noise. So, if the filter is a single order type, the effective noise bandwidth is 1.57 x the 3 dB frequency of the filter.
Feb 19, 2022 at 18:52 answer added lazba timeline score: 0
Feb 19, 2022 at 18:46 comment added Lush It's just the method I would like to know. Let's say that the frequency content is 1kHz, and the bandwidth is 1MHz
Feb 19, 2022 at 18:40 comment added GrapefruitIsAwesome That's going to depend on the frequency content of the desired signal and bandwidth of the input noise.
S Feb 19, 2022 at 18:36 review First questions
Feb 19, 2022 at 18:58
S Feb 19, 2022 at 18:36 history asked Lush CC BY-SA 4.0