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Nov 6, 2023 at 19:43 comment added bevren15 You have made a very excellent point. Thank you for that. But now when I do the calculation, according to the formula 1/(2*pifC) C1 (1uF) has a reactance of 3.183k. Therefore, since it is in series with R4, it makes 13.183k. On the top side, C2 (100pF) makes 31.831M from the same formula. Since they are in parallel with R5 (100k), it makes 99.687k. Doesn't 99.687k/13.183k = 7,56 gain for one op-amp?
Nov 6, 2023 at 16:58 history answered AnalogKid CC BY-SA 4.0