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Oct 16, 2013 at 21:21 vote accept Standard Sandun
Sep 30, 2013 at 12:50 comment added Andy aka I've looked at the data sheet and it doesn't give details - I would expect Q1 to conduct for the same length of time as Q2 and that one conduction period immediately follows the other followed by a period of time that accounts for duty cycles less than maximum. If it's not like this then I can only assume that TR1 in your diagram is acting in some kind of partial fly-back mode.
Sep 30, 2013 at 12:41 comment added Standard Sandun which does mean Q1 Q2 cycles are not symmetric.If so the answer is acceptable.
Sep 30, 2013 at 12:36 comment added Andy aka As far as I'm aware Q1 "charges" the primary and then Q2 "discharges" the primary then there is (or can be) a zero/neutral state. This means max duty cycle can be 50:50 for maximum power transfer or something less for controlling a smaller power. I believe (although I've not checked) that Q1 conducts and the moment it stops conducting Q2 conducts for the same length of time.
Sep 30, 2013 at 12:31 comment added Standard Sandun so is it required to keep the duty cycle near 1 in this topology. The waveform have a state where both Q1 and Q2 are off.
Sep 30, 2013 at 12:02 comment added Andy aka Think of this type of circuit as a regular transformer circuit and not as a fly-back where there would be an "off" cycle.
Sep 30, 2013 at 11:41 answer added Dave Tweed timeline score: 3
Sep 30, 2013 at 10:07 history asked Standard Sandun CC BY-SA 3.0