I would you to help me to understand a circuit I have in my notes which is reported in the following picture.
First of all it's my first time in which I see the supply voltage in some ways connected to one of the opamp inputs, which looks a little bit weird to me. Secondly I would expect a 2.5 V as output voltage instead of the 5V reported here.
In fact, according to my knowledge, the opamp is in a kind of non inverting configuration, where the gain should be
\$ G = 1 + \frac{R_g}{R} \$
since \$R_g\rightarrow 0\$ and \$R\rightarrow \infty\$ then the gain is \$G = 1\$.
Furthermore the LM336 has a breakdown voltage of 2.5 V, honestly I am not sure the voltage drop is large enough to guarantee a breakdown configuration, but I don't see any sense in putting a Zener diode in confinguration which is not the breakdown one.
From these considerations, I argue that the opamp, with its gain \$G = 1\$ provides a stable tension of 2.5 V in its output, and that the current passing through R should be \$(12V-2.5V)/1k\Omega\$ which is something less than 1 mA.
Is there anything wrong with my considerations? Furthermore, why do I need this configuration to have a stable 2.5 (or 5 V in the case in which I am wrong) power supply voltage? Is there any difference with a power supply obtained with a much more usual non inverting op amp?