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ZMPT101B

This is the circuit I'm trying to make:

Proteus Simulation of ZMPT101B

This is the circuit I made for simulation in Proteus:

Proteus Simulation Result of ZMPT101B Circuit

These are my measured values as a result of Proteus simulation.


This circuit is used to measure the voltage of 220V / 50Hz with 0V-5V at the output.

I cannot calculate the gain of this circuit.I know how to calculate the gain of the first op-amp at the junction of R1 and C1 that: We need to find the resistances of C2 and C1 at 50Hz and get their equivalents with R5 and R4, then we need to divide the results we find by each other and find the gain.

For example; 50Hz reactance for C1 is 3.183kOhm from 1/(2pif*C). Therefore, it makes 13.183k below. The 50Hz reactance for C2 is 31.831MOhm. Equivalent with R5 makes 99.686k. So I calculate the gain as 99.686k / 13.183k = 7.562. The same goes for the 2nd opamp, but somewhere I think I am thinking wrong.

According to the simulation result, the input voltage of the first opamp (U1.1) is 30mV and the output voltage is 550mV. Therefore, there is a gain of 18.3 times. Also, the second opamp (U1.2) has an input voltage of 550mV and an output voltage of 5V. Therefore, there is a gain of 9.09 times. I can't find how to calculate these gains and I can't understand why the gains are different even though the two opamp circuits are the same.

How can we calculate this? What am I doing wrong?

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1 Answer 1

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I can see two cascade-connected AC-coupled single-supply inverting amplifiers built with a single LM358 which contains two op amps.

An op amp with dual supply (e.g. ±5V) is expected to amplify negative signals because the output can swing towards the negative supply rail. When it's single supplied i.e. the negative supply rail is 0V (ground), the output cannot swing below 0V. The solution is to apply a positive voltage (ideally, half the supply) to the non-inverting input so the output can have an enough offset (i.e. room for negative swing). The crucial point is to make sure the output doesn't have too high offset so the output doesn't clip.

In your circuits each amplifier has a 2.5V offset applied to their non-inverting inputs through voltage dividers (R2-R3 and R10-R11, which are all 10k).

  • At DC (capacitors open circuit) the amplifiers turn into buffers so the outputs are equal to the non-inverting input voltages (2.5V here).
  • At AC the non-inverting inputs are connected to ground through the equivalent of divider resistors (parallel, therefore 5k) so they work as inverting amplifiers. The gain is frequency-dependent because of the presence of C1 and C4 (both 1μ). Basically, it's

$$ A_V(f)=-\frac{100k}{10k+\frac{-j}{2\pi \ f \ C}}; \ C = 1\mu \ $$

So the actual outputs will be the amplified signal with an offset of 2.5V. The series capacitors (C1 and C4) remove the DC offset before amplification so the DC offsets will not be amplified.

NOTE: I intentionally ignored 100p as it has negligibly high reactance at the frequency of interest.

but somewhere I think I am thinking wrong

When there is a resistor and a reactive component is connected in series, you cannot just sum the reactances to find the equivalent reactance. They form a complex number so you need to find the magnitude of the number. In your case, the capacitor's impedance points towards the negative imaginary axis whilst the resistor's points to positive real axis. These to form a right triangle so the magnitude becomes the hypotenuse:

enter image description here

$$ Z = R + Z_C =R + \frac{1}{j\omega C}=R + \frac{-j}{\omega C} \\ |Z|=\sqrt{Z_C^2+R^2} $$

At 50 Hz, C1 and C4 show a reactance of 3.18 kΩ, so the effective reactance will be ~10.5 kΩ. So the gains of both amplifiers at 50 Hz will be

$$ A_V(50) = -\frac{100k}{|Z(50)|}=-\frac{100k}{\sqrt{3.18k^2+10k^2}}=-\frac{100k}{10.5k}=-9.53 $$

Minus sign indicates a 180° phase reversal (inverting the signal).

Simulation also takes the offset error and the effect of 100p capacitors into account but the results above still looks like a good approximation.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ When calculating the impedance, shouldn't we only take the reactance of the capacitor for R and then add the resistance to the calculation, why |Z| = (Zc^2 + R^2)^(1/2)? Why not Zc+R? Also, there are various formulas for this circuit everywhere. For example; "AV = Vout/Vin = (Af (f/fc))/√(1+ (f/fc)^2 )" or "Af is passband gain of the filter = 1+( R2)/R1". I am also confused what to use, but why did we add resistance to reactance with this empdans. After finding the impedance, I would be very happy if you enlighten me if we did not add the resistance on top. \$\endgroup\$
    – bevren15
    Commented Nov 7, 2023 at 15:08
  • \$\begingroup\$ Also in the simulation there is a C1 capacitor to prevent offset. Do you think it is normal to get 18 times gain from offset? If so, why is the same circuit installed in the second opamp and why is there 9 times gain? I look forward to your thoughts. \$\endgroup\$
    – bevren15
    Commented Nov 7, 2023 at 15:12
  • \$\begingroup\$ @bevren15 You are measuring the input to the amplifier wrong. The yellow channel measures the top end of the input (secondary) w.r.t. ground but its bottom end is connected to the divider (a.k.a. virtual ground). You should take "differential measurement" i.e. connect one channel to top end, another channel to bottom end, and take the difference. You'll see the actual input is ~60 mV and the amplification factor is correct. As for your question about impedance, maybe you should revise your background about (or study deeper) the reactive components, impedance and reactance concepts. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Nov 7, 2023 at 15:42
  • \$\begingroup\$ First of all, I appreciate your interest. First; Based on what you said, I added another oscilloscope to the simulation and measured the 2 and 3 terminals. The signals completely overlap, so there is no offset between them. Secondly; Yes, I researched the impedance and reactance issue, but I still could not understand how the impedance of the capacitor is related to another resistor other than its own reactance. I would be very grateful if you can show a source for this. \$\endgroup\$
    – bevren15
    Commented Nov 7, 2023 at 16:12
  • \$\begingroup\$ @bevren15 Apparently I couldn't explain. Of course the 2nd and 3rd terminals of the op amp must be at the same potential (overlap) because there's feedback and this is what an op amp tries to do. What I meant was connecting different channels to the "secondary of the transformer" i.e. signal source to the amplifier. Yellow channel measures the top end of the secondary w.r.t. ground but the secondary is referenced to the first amplifier's virtual ground (R3-R2 divider). Connect blue channel to the bottom end and take the difference of yellow and blue. You'll see the actual voltage, ~60mV. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Nov 7, 2023 at 16:19

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