As I understood the tangential force F on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field makes the armature of a electric motor move. But actually the groove where the conductor is located in is (almost) field-free.
The field of the current-carrying conductor, however, influences the magnetic field in the tooth flanks (is that right?) which leads to an unbalance of the field forces so that the effective tangential forces in electrical machines mainly arise by Maxwell's tensile stresses on the tooth flanks (it's a machine translation).
I'm confused about this.
- Is this explanation correct?
- Is there a more simple explanation how it works?
- Is this valid for all electric motors?
- Any good online source about this?