Question for you. Currently 'm in the middle of studying for an analog II exam. I've got the following midband small signal model:
When analyzing for midband gain, more specifically VB2/VPi1, the solution just considers the one current source (GmVpi1) to be running across the resistance RC1//Ri2.
$$\large\frac{V_{b2}}{V_{\pi1}} = -g_m \left[R_{C1} \| \left(r_{e2} + R_{E2} \| R_L \right)\left(1 + \beta_2\right) \right]$$
In reality there are two current sources! What gives? Is it because we know that the current being supplied by Gm2Vpi2 is much much smaller than Gm1Vpi1 that we ignore it?