I'm doing an analysis of a PMDC motor and I don't understand something about the transfer function.
I have the following equation: \$(K_t\frac{1}{((s* L_A) + R_A)})(V_I(s)-k_b\omega(s))= (s^2J_m+sb_m)\theta(s) \$ which solved for \$ \frac{\theta(s)}{V_I(s)}\$ gives the result:
\$\frac{K_t}{s((s* L_A) + R_A)(sJ_m+b_m)+K_tK_b)}\$
I wanted to ask, where did \$\omega(s)\$ go? I'm sure it should be out of the result, but I can't figure why.
Thank you.
EDIT: I forgot to mention this. The equation is taken from the transformations of the electrical and mechanical components of a PMDC motor.
\$I_A=(\frac{1}{((s* L_A) + R_A)})(V_I(s)-k_b\omega(s))\$ as the equation of the electrical part of the motor, with \$V_I\$ as the voltage input, \$k_b\omega(s)\$ as the EMF. \$L_A and R_A\$ are the electrical resistance and inductive impedance.
Then, \$K_t I_A=(s^2J_m+sb_m)\theta(s)\$ is the equation for the net torque of PMDC motors which combined with the one above gives the first equation.
I've been trying the think about it and it might be related to \$\omega(s)= \frac{\partial \theta(s)}{\partial t}\$ but I'm not sure.