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As per my understanding, When an electric field is applied to a current carrying wire, it exerts Lorentz force on electrons and hence a transverse electric field is generated. Also when we apply magnetic field wire resistance changes called as magnetoresistive effect. My Question is aren't both of these effects are same? Or am i making some mistake. Also i found somewhere that magnetoresistive effect is of 2nd order while Hall effect is 1st order.How is this possible if both have same cause. (Sorry for my poor english)

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  • \$\begingroup\$ Oops, magnetic field supplies Lorentz force q(vxB) (where the x is the vector cross product.) Hall effect gives a voltage perpendicular to electron velocity, magnetio-resistance is parallel. A voltage drop along the device. \$\endgroup\$ Oct 10, 2014 at 15:26

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No, the Hall Effect and magnetoresistance are very different effects.

In particular, giant magnetoresistance is a quantum effect that has been widely exploited to implement magnetometors (electronic compasses), disk drive read heads, biosensors, and MRAM.

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