# Karnaugh Map from this expression?

Here is the expression I am trying to represent in the Karnaugh Map:

This is what I have done: Can somebody confirm if this is right? I have done the truth table right, however I am having doubts on whether the map has been done correctly.

Any help would be appreciated

• Seems correct. $\overline{(xy)}$ simplifies to $\overline{x}+\overline{y}$. Then withinin the left part you get a $\overline{x}+x$ which is always 1, so only the right part is of interest. The right part is exactly the same as your K-map. – jippie Feb 28 '15 at 23:07
• @jippie, you should post your comment as an answer so that this question does not remain unanswered. – Joel Reyes Noche Mar 1 '15 at 0:25
• @jippie - I understood what you mean, but do i have to change anything on the picture above or is that right? – Mathematica Mar 1 '15 at 9:40
• Also asked at math.stackexchange.com/q/1169384/18398 – Joel Reyes Noche Mar 1 '15 at 9:56
• @Mathematica not in my opinion. – jippie Mar 1 '15 at 11:40

R = (X + X' + Y' + Z)(XY + X'Y'Z+YZ')

R = (1 + Y' + Z)(XY + X'Y'Z+YZ')

R = (1)(XY + X'Y'Z+YZ')

R = XY + X'Y'Z+YZ'

R = XYZ' + XYZ + X'Y'Z + XYZ' + X'YZ'

R = XYZ + X'Y'Z + XYZ' + X'YZ'

respective terms of last equation will be logic one in K-Map