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We know that torque in an induction machine varies as \$k\times[\cos(2wt)+\cos(\beta)]\$ but we don't feel it. Why it's so?

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  • \$\begingroup\$ Is that formula correct? I have not formally studied induction machines, but it was my understanding that the torque was proportional to the slip. \$\endgroup\$ – mkeith Apr 2 '15 at 6:20
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    \$\begingroup\$ @mkeith, it is proportional to slip in a running, loaded induction motor. I didn't check the equation, but it looks really familiar. There are instantaneous fluctuations in torque based on when the poles of the rotor and the stator cross, though, but under any kind of load - including the rotor - they are usually inconsequential to anyone except the team that had to design the machine. \$\endgroup\$ – Sean Boddy Apr 2 '15 at 7:07
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Evaluate that for 60 hz on an actual machine. Account for the rotational inertia of the rotor mass. Consider that momentum is like a bucket - if you add a drop and lose a drop 60 times a second, nobody is going to see the level change unless they are really looking for it.

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