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Hi I'm a beginner trying to learn CMOS cuicuit.

Let's say we have two NMOS connected as shown. Given: A, B, C are connected to Vdd = 5V; VtM1 = 0.6V is the threshold voltage of M1; VtM2 = 0.5V is the threshold voltage of M2.

Could someone please explain why the voltage of node "y" is Vy = Vdd - VtM1 - VtM2 ? (which means if the input of M2, Vx = 5V - 0.6V = 4.4V, the output of M2 is Vy = 4.4V - 0.5V = 3.9V ?)


The voltage at node Y is not what you say it is:

$$V_Y\ne V_{DD}-V_{THM1}-V_{THM2}$$



So, for \$V_{DD}=5\rm{V}\$, \$V_{THM1}=0.6\rm{V}\$, and \$V_{THM2}=0.5\rm{V}\$, then \$V_Y=4.4\rm{V}\$. M1 is in saturation with \$V_{DSM1}=0.6\rm{V}\$, while M2 is in triode with \$V_{DSM2}=0\rm{V}\$.

If you flipped them around, so that \$V_{THM1}=0.5\rm{V}\$ and \$V_{THM2}=0.6\rm{V}\$, then they would both be in saturation. M1 would have \$V_{DSM1}=0.5\rm{V}\$, and M2 would have \$V_{DSM2}=0.1\rm{V}\$. \$V_Y\$ would still be \$4.4\rm{V}\$.

I should note that, since the body is disconnected from the S/D terminals, these MOSFETs will experience body effect. Therefore their threshold voltages will be substantially higher than we have considered in this analysis.

  • \$\begingroup\$ Hi Zeke, I've elaborated my original question a little bit. Do you know the answer? \$\endgroup\$ – Liz Apr 18 '15 at 3:27

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