# About the leakage reactance of transformer

As known the transformer's equivalent circuit can be developed as below:

Assume the $V_{1}$ is the voltage applied to primary side, and $V_{2}$ is the voltage developed at the secondary load.

Now, let the primary side open circuit, and apply a voltage to the secondary. My colleague argued that, because the primary side current is zero, the leakage reactance at the secondary will not exist, that is, the $X_{i2}$ will be zero! But I think it will be still there, because there is always some flux that does not flow through the transformer core.

Which one of the above points is right?