What causes the rpm difference between peak brushed motor torque and peak brushed motor efficiency?

typical brushed motor performance http://members.toast.net/joerger/pic2/motorcurve.gif source: http://members.toast.net/joerger/AskAaron/motors.html

page 15 of this brushed & brushless motor performance summary talks about efficiency but doesn't mention a connection between torque and efficiency. http://www.dtic.mil/dtic/tr/fulltext/u2/a577582.pdf

closed as too broad by Eugene Sh., Daniel Grillo, uint128_t, Dmitry Grigoryev, Peter Smith Jun 4 '16 at 13:17

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  • Why would you expect no difference? Any system has a peak efficiency at some conditions, which are not necessarily the once where it is stressed the most. – Eugene Sh. Jun 1 '16 at 20:17
  • where did you get that image as it isn't from the report you link – JonRB Jun 1 '16 at 21:33
  • 3
    Because peak torque is at stall, and there the efficiency is zero. – Brian Drummond Jun 1 '16 at 23:24
  • What causes the RPM difference between peak efficiency and peak power? The mechanical load causes that RPM difference. If you reduce the load, the speed and efficiency will go back to the peak. – mkeith Jun 2 '16 at 0:23
up vote 2 down vote accepted

Peak efficiency means best ration of mechanical power (velocity * torque) to electrical power (I * (IR + BEMF)).

The ability to keep high torque is lost towards highest RPM, this is why there is a peak instead constant growth.

The DC motor performance curves posted in the question are drawn for a fixed voltage and variable load torque. At zero speed, the load has been increased to the point that the motor is stalled. The motor is producing its maximum torque, but the shaft will not turn because the load is so high. Since mechanical power is speed multiplied by torque, the output mechanical power is zero. 100% torque X 0% speed = 0% power. However, the motor current is high, so electrical power is going into the motor even though no mechanical power is coming out. All of the power going into the motor is producing heat inside the motor. Efficiency is output mechanical power divided by input electrical power. No output divided by some input = zero efficiency.

At 100% speed, the load has been reduced to zero so that the motor has nothing holding it back and runs at the maximum possible speed. Here again, there is no mechanical power being produced. 0% torque X 100% speed = 0% power. Here again, there is some current going into the motor, so power is going into the motor, but no power is coming out. Here again, the efficiency is zero.

The speed at which efficiency is maximum is someplace between zero and maximum speed. The losses in the motor are mostly losses due to the resistance of the winding. Losses in resistance are proportional to the current squared, and increase rapidly as the current increases in proportion to the torque. The output power of the motor rises as the torque increases, but reach a peak when the speed has decreased as much as the torque has increased. At that point, the losses have risen to equal the output power of the motor. Half of the input power to the motor is going to losses and half to output, so the efficiency has fallen to 50%.

Put simply, the rpm difference is caused by current causing a voltage drop across the motor's internal resistances (brushes, commutator, armature windings).

Torque is proportional to current. When the motor is free running it speeds up until the back-emf (almost) equals the supply voltage, and it draws just enough current to overcome internal losses. As loading increases the current must increase to supply a torque to match the load. This current causes a voltage drop across the motor's internal resistance. The motor slows down because the driving voltage (supply voltage - voltage drop across internal resistance) is lower.

Peak torque occurs at maximum current. This occurs at zero rpm because at that point there is no back-emf so current is limited only by resistance. However power output = speed * torque, so efficiency is zero.

Efficiency improves at higher rpm because then the current is lower so resistive ('copper') loss reduces. However as speed increases so too do frictional and magnetic ('iron') losses. rpm is at a maximum when free running, but then torque is zero so power output and efficiency are also zero.

Peak efficiency occurs at the point where copper loss = iron loss, typically at 80~90% of no-load rpm.

  • Thanks. Are there any brushed motors designed so that iron losses are higher at low rpm (so that peak power density and peak efficiency coincide, useful for eg. copters and robots)? Typical brushed Mabuchi motors fit the curve in the question above ( mabuchi-motor.co.jp/cgi-bin/catalog/… ) – user35070 Jun 3 '16 at 13:15
  • I guess this is why there are gears. – user35070 Jun 3 '16 at 13:17
  • Iron loss is comprised of windage, bearing friction, hysteresis, and eddy currents - all of which increase at higher rpm. Hysteresis and eddy currents can be reduced by reducing magnetic field strength, which is achieved by reducing field coil current ('field weakening') in a wound stator motor. In a PM motor magnetic field strength is determined by the magnets so it cannot easily be reduced. 'Coreless' motors have less iron so high rpm hysteresis and eddy current losses are greatly reduced, but they have low torque so they need deep gearing to get good torque. – Bruce Abbott Jun 3 '16 at 18:52

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