So I'm trying to solve the following question:
I'm very confused how they derived the equation for the output voltage. It was from my understanding that for an ideal op amp, the current through the positive terminal (because it's non-inverting) is \$0\$. Therefore, the current through the resistor \$R1\$ should be the same current through the capacitor. So how does any current flow through the 1k ohm resistor or \$R2\$? Because if any current did flow, wouldn't that violate KCL for the node on the bottom to which the source voltage, the capacitor, ground, and the 1k ohm resistor are connected to?