Will the gain of the following IDEAL Op-Amp be zero?
My reasoning is that the positive (non-inverting) terminal voltage is zero because it is connected to ground. Since the voltage for the negative (inverting) terminal is supposed to be equal to the non-inverting terminal voltage for an ideal op-amp and that the Vin of the op-amp is equal to the non-inverting voltage minus the inverting voltage, the Vin will also be zero.
Therefore. the gain will also be zero, and the Vs will also be zero.