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In a ideal transformer we assumed that there is no resistance in windings. Then why there is no infinite current in windings?

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closed as unclear what you're asking by winny, Lior Bilia, TonyM, Daniel Grillo, Chupacabras Dec 14 '17 at 7:59

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In an ideal transformer, the winding is a pure inductor and this inductor does not have a DC component (i.e. zero winding resistance).

If you apply DC voltage (f = 0) to the windings, the reactance of the winding (inductor) will be zero due to \$X_L = 2 \pi \ f \ L\$ and thus the current will be infinite.

However, if you apply AC voltage (f ≠ 0), the source will see a non-zero reactance (again, \$X_L = 2 \pi \ f \ L\$) thus a finite-current of \$i_p = V_s / X_L\$ will flow through the winding.

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    \$\begingroup\$ Furthermore, in an ideal transformer, the winding inductance is infinite, so the magnetizing current is zero for any nonzero frequency. \$\endgroup\$ – Dave Tweed Dec 6 '17 at 12:40

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