Below drawing illustrates a transmission line where the source voltage is:
Vs(t) = V0 x sin(ωt)
After reading some texts about the subject, I concluded how to decide whether one must consider transmission line effects or not. If I'm not wrong, to consider transmission effects, basically there must be a considerable phase delay between the source and the load voltages.
Let's say just nearby the source the voltage is approximately equal to Vs(t). And let's say the length of the line is L.
At the end of the line near the load we can say the voltage is delayed so it will be around Vs(t-Δt).
So here Δt can be written in terms of the velocity of propagation vp and the line length L as:
Δt = L/vp
So the delayed voltage can be written as:
Vs(t-Δt) = V0 x sin(ω(t-Δt)) or simply
Vs(t-Δt) = V0 x sin(ω(t-L/vp))
from above equation we can easily see the phase delay φ becomes:
φ = ω x L/vp
My question is:
We've just written the phase delay φ as:
φ = ω x L/vp which is
φ = 2 x pi x f x L/vp or grouping
φ = (2 x pi) x (f x L/vp)
Now I see that many text conclude when the φ is large the transmission line effects must be taken into account. Obviously they conclude that increasing the frequency will dramatically increase φ and one must consider transmission line effects.
But knowing that if a phasor in complex plane is shifted by
(2 x pi) x integer
the phasor actually comes to the same point. There is no phase delay.
Imagine we found the phase delay as (2 x pi) x integer. Does that mean we should still consider the transmission line effects even though we calculate zero phase delay?
If the phase delay is (2 x pi) x integer, and the integer is 1000 does that mean the voltage is moving like a wave and we should consider transmission line effects? (I think we should since we are dealing with moving waves)
But what if the phase delay φ in radian is 0.1 or 1 or ect. What is the criteria to consider the transmission line effects due to φ? For φ > what we should consider transmission line effects?