This was extracted from an exercise in which V2 was an AC power source. However, I have tried to imagine what would happen if it was DC. It is obviously a non-inverting OpAmp, but according to my book, this is a Buffer Gain = 1 system because C1 blocks any current from flowing through R1. Could someone explain this? I am confused since I do not see how C1 can affect the node at which we apply Kirchhoff's Current Law.
If this is the case, where we have a Buffer, then I know VA = V2. But since we have C2, right after this capacitor, would we have VB = 0 for the same reason?
I am very confused and I could use some help with both questions (in bold above). Thank you!