I've already looked for similiar questions, but couldn't find any. Basically, I'm new in electronic circuits analysis and, after following my professor's lecture and looking on the internet I found out that the following circuit (please note that the voltage source on the top is meant to "replace" a voltage line, as I have no idea of how to draw it)
simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab
can be approximately solved, using Thévenin's equivalent, as
with $$ R_{th}=R_1∥R_2\approx 2.3k\Omega, V_{BB}=\frac{R_2}{R_1+R_2}V_s\approx 9.23V.$$
Hence, assuming FAR operating conditions (with voltage drop between the base and the emitter of about 0.7V), according to my computations, $$ V_{BB}-I_BR_{th}-V_{BE}-I_ER_e=0\Rightarrow I_B=\frac{V_{BB}-V_{BE}}{R_{th}+(1+\beta)R_e}.$$
Let's further assume beta=100; then, $$I_B\approx 82\mu A, I_c\approx \beta I_B\approx 8.20 mA.$$ But, to me, this amount of current through a 2700 ohms resistor looks just insane, as it would bring about a 22V voltage drop across Rc, while the voltage source delivers only 12V. Moreover, $$V_s-R_cI_c-V_{CE}-I_ER_e=0\Rightarrow V_{CE}=V_s-R_cI_c-I_ER_e\approx -18.42V,$$ which looks totally wrong to me. Where am I wrong? Sorry if this may be a trivial question, but I've been trying for 3 days already and looking on the internet didn't help me at all. Thanks in advance!