I am asked to calculate the voltage at the non-inverting input of the op-amp if v1=4.78V and v2=0v.
I thought that the answer would be zero, as the voltage at the non-inverting input must be approximately equal to the voltage at the inverting input, and the inverting input is connected to ground. However, this is incorrect.
I would appreciate it if you could help me understand what is happening here. I have gone through some practice questions relating to op-amps with circuits constructed similar to this using the assumption that the voltage at the input equals that at the output, however, i am getting this question wrong.
Thank you very much for your time,