I am trying to familiarize myself with operational amplifiers by going through this book by Sergio Franco.
This is a basic question regarding the example given on page 16, which I am struggling to understand.
According to the explanation, V3 is equal to -6V.
I know that when operated with negative feedback, an ideal op amp will output whatever voltage and current it takes to drive VD to zero, or equivalently, to force VN to track VP.
The top half of the circuit looks like an inverting amplifier circuit, with the bottom half leaving Vp (Voltage at positive input) at 0:
What am I doing wrong here?