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So my waveform is a step function, where maximum voltage is at Vin = 40V, and minimum voltage is (-N1/N3)*Vin = -200V. The minimum voltage doesn't sound right to me, so I was wondering if anyone can confirm the validity of my results. Thanks for your time. enter image description here

  • \$\begingroup\$ Please show said waveform! \$\endgroup\$
    – winny
    Nov 2, 2018 at 13:31
  • \$\begingroup\$ No worries, I've attached the waveform. \$\endgroup\$
    – sam_832
    Nov 3, 2018 at 0:07

1 Answer 1


The magnitude seems right to me, but the time should not be \$t_{off}\$, but \$\frac{1}{5} t_{on} \$ instead, because the demagnetization ends five time faster than the magnetization during the ON period (due to 5 times bigger reset voltage). After that there is no magnetizing current, the diode D3 stops conducting and the voltage stays zero across the windings.


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