I have a pretty basic question.
In three phased systems, I know that if the loads are equal, the neutal conductor has no role and can be removed, my question concerns unequal loads.
My question is, In case of the rupture of the neutral conductor, When calculating the new voltage in each load, we apply the formula \$ V_i=Vs_i-U_n \$ where \$U_n \$ has its own formula with \$ z_n\rightarrow +\infty \$, However, If the neutral conductor didn't exist from the start, I would consider each load in series with another load of the system and apply the voltage divider to calculate the actual voltages with the difference of two phases as my main voltage (Am I right ?).
My question is, What is the difference between it rupturing and it not existing from the start? I understand that, before the rupture, \$ U_n \$ existed while it didn't at all in the second situation, but in case of a rupture, why don't I consider them in series just like I did with the second situation, I know both situations are dangerous since they give wrong voltages and can be dangerous however, They don't give the same voltage values so they obviously aren't the same(?).
The problem may lie in my severe weakness in basic electrical concepts.