I'm trying to review some old concepts, and thus far, there was one that I couldn't really understand: impedance of circuits involving op-amps. Assuming an ideal op-amp, it has infinite input impedance and no output impedance, but that's only for the op-amp itself. I'm having trouble understanding how to find the input/output impedance of some op-amp circuits as a whole.
Take the standard non-inverting amplifier for instance:
Using the ideal op-amp rules, since the non-inverting input is connected to the input voltage through Z1, the input impedance would be infinite as no current can flow through the op-amp terminals. However, when you look at the output impedance, you remove the input source by shorting it to ground, making the non-inverting input equal to ground (as well as the inverting input). My book says that the output impedance would be 0, but I don't understand how this is the case. Replacing the load resistor with a current source, you just see an internal op-amp 'output' resistance of 0 ohms in parallel with Z2 to ground, so is that set of parallel impedances the cause of the 0 ohm output impedance? Is this logic correct?
It feels that because of the nature of the ideal op-amp having 0 output resistance, all op-amp circuits would have 0 output resistance. Is this always the case, or are there some exceptions? I'm trying to develop some methodologies for measuring such impedances in circuit problems as it's hard for me to wrap my head around.