In an NPN transistor, why isn't a typical C-E voltage sufficient to overcome the internal resistance of NPN junction directly? Since we only need 0.7V to overcome the PN junction from the Base to Emitter, isn’t that the same as applying a similar (or slightly higher) voltage from Collector to Emitter to achieve the same outcome?
Thinking of it an electronic level, the key thing you’re trying to do is ‘push’ electrons into an area of negative charge – i.e. the Collector. I don’t see why the existing potential difference from Emitter to Collector doesn’t do this without a base potential being applied at all.