I have a question about the circuit below. I want to find Vo in terms of Vi. But I don't fully understand the principles about an ideal op amp's output. You will see my questions in bold at the bottom of the page when I first explain my process.
So first I assume the ideal op amp has infinite input impedance so no current flows into either input of the op amp.
Next as the non-inverting input is connected directly to Vi, I can assume that the inverting input will also be held at Vi.
Now because both sides of R2 are held at Vi, no current will flow through R2.
Finally to find the current flowing through R1, I use nodal analysis to say the current through R1 will be (Vi-Vo)/R1. Now the answer I have been given is Vo=Vi, or the nodal analysis equation equals 0.
But how does this equation equal 0? Is it because both inputs are at the same potential of Vi, so Vo will also be at the same potential of Vi, so no current can flow?
Or is it because Vo must equal Vi in order to hold the inverting input at the potential of Vi?
I thought that if there was no voltage difference in the inputs, then Vo would equal to 0V?