Starting from "The Effective Resistance of a Load Resistance attached to a Transformer" at page 8 of this document there is an example where it demonstrates impedance matching using an ideal transformer. There are sections as the paragraph below:
The document says the winding resistance of the ideal transformer is zero. So far so good. I don't have any problem with that.
But then it writes the equation:
Vo = Ip*Ri + Vp
I have two problems/confusions with this equation:
1-) Vp is across the primary winding. The primary winding is a pure inductive reactance. So shouldn't correct the formula use phasors or simply be?:
Vo^2 = (Ip*Ri)^2 + Vp^2
(I mean why does the doemunet treat Vp and Ip*Ri as they are in phase?)
2-) This is a bit more confusing. According to the definition of ideal transformer it is written:
An ideal transformer is a theoretical linear transformer that is lossless and perfectly coupled. Perfect coupling implies infinitely high core magnetic permeability and winding inductances and zero net magnetomotive force (i.e. ipnp - isns = 0).
This means ideal transformer has infinite inductance. And if the inductance is infinite, the voltage across the winding at any non zero frequency should become infinite from s*L equation.
But then back to the document, Ip must be zero since inductive reactance of the primary would be infinite. But the document treats as if it not zero. Where am I thinking wrong here?