I have a hard time trying to understand why Thevenin’s Theorem is the way it is.
As per the diagram below, I understand why we take our “Thevenin resistance” that way. But as far as the voltage is concerned, I am completely lost. Why do we take the “Thevenin voltage” to be the voltage drop across the points A and B? By doing that, won’t the voltage drop across AB in the equivalent circuit be less than the original value, since part of the voltage must have been dropped across the “Thevenin resistance”?
This has been bothering me for two days now. Please help.