In an LR circuit with an AC source (\$V=V_0\cos(\omega t)\$) we have that $$I(t)=\frac{V_0}{\sqrt{R^2+(\omega L)^2}}cos(\omega t -\phi)$$ where \$\phi=\frac{\omega L}{R}\$. I find this formula rather intuitive. If the inductance \$L\$ is high then the system has a strong 'ability' to fight back against changes in the current thereby reducing the currents amplitude. Similarly, if the frequency \$\omega\$ is high, then there will always be a very high change in magnetic flux through the inductor and thus a large back emf will produced meaning the currents amplitude will ultimately be reduced. But now if we hook up a simple RC circuit to the same AC source, we get the solution $$I(t)=\frac{v_0}{\sqrt{R^2+(\frac{1}{\omega c})^2}}cos(\omega t+\phi)$$ where \$\phi = \frac{1}{R\omega C}\$. But now I do not find this formula intuitive at all. Why should the currents amplitude approach a maximum as we increase the frequency? In the case of the LR circuit, the current goes to zero and the reason is rather intuitive (It's because of the increasingly rapid changes in magnetic flux which generate an increasingly strong back emf) except for an RC circuit, I can't think of any reason why the amplitude approaches a maximum. Also, why would the currents amplitude approach a maximum value if the capacitance is extremely high but approach zero if the capacitance is extremely low? And finally why is there a phase difference at all for a RC circuit? The phase delay in the LR circuit can easily be chalked up to the back emf but for an RC circuit there doesn't seem to be any immediately apparent reason for the phase difference.
Basically, I can't seem to come up with any reasonable explanation as to why the capacitive reactance (\$\frac{1}{\omega c}\$ ) takes the form that it does. Any help on this would be most appreciated!