As far as I understand, an ideal transformer wouldn't show any net flux inside its core, as any such net flux would induce electric fields and in turn currents in the windings such that it will disappear. So an ideal transformer would show no (net) flux at all, correct? So it would kind of act like a control loop trying to keep the flux at 0.
A real transformer requires energy in order to magnetize its core. This energy is provided to the transformer in the form of the magnetizing current \$ I_\mu \$ and a corresponding magnetizing flux \$ \phi_m \$.
It was introduced to me as $$ \phi_m = \phi_1 - \phi_2 $$
with \$\phi_1 \$ being the flux put into the system by the primary winding, and \$\phi_2 \$ being the induced flux coming back from the secondary winding. So what's left after taking this difference is the magnetization flux.
It suggests this flux flows in the whole ferrite core. My internal model was that the energy provided by the additional current \$ I_\mu \$ would be "absorbed" by the core in order to magnetize itself and the flux wouldn't make it to the secondary winding. If it does flow throughout the whole core, and also through the secondary winding, wouldn't it play into the "control loop" described above and vanish as soon as it arises?
What am I missing? Thank you for your time in advance!