It is well known in physics that a rigid body having a current \$i\$ in a closed loop under a magnetic field \$\vec{B}\$ experiences a torque which is
\$\vec{T}= \vec{m}\times\vec{B}\$
where the magnetic moment \$\vec{m}\$ is defined as a vector perpendicular to the plain of the coil itself and it has a module equal to the product of the current with its enclosed area.
\$ \vec{m} = i\vec{S}\$
My problem is that I would like to understand in which way in a DC motor the torque \$\vec{T}\$ on its rotor is proportional to the product of current \$i\$ and the magnetic flux \$\phi(\vec{B})\$ .
\$ T = K \phi(\vec{B})i \$
as reported (without demonstrations!) in an engineering book I am dealing with.
Particularly my need of clarification comes from the following consideration: when the flux \$\phi(\vec{B})\$ is zero then the torque \$\vec{T}\$ is at its maximum, while, when the flux \$\phi(\vec{B})\$ is at its maximum then the torque \$\vec{T}\$ is zero.
For the purpose of a clear understanding I report in the following picture a simple scheme of a DC motor:
According to Lorentz equation, the force (green arrows) applied to the rotor
\$ \vec{F} = i\vec{l}\times \vec{B}\$
which means the force is constant in both module (\$F = ilB\$) and direction all over the rotor movement around its axis. What is not constant is the torque \$\vec{T} = \vec{b}\times\vec{F}\$, the module of which being
\$T = ilbB\sin{\alpha}\ = iSB\sin{\alpha}\$
where \$\alpha\$ is the angle between the plain of the coil itself and and the Lorentz force (which is slightly different than 90 degrees in the configuration of the previous picture.)
Now the equation \$\vec{T} = \vec{m}\times\vec{B}\$ is well satisfied but, as I previously mentioned, when the flux \$\phi(\vec{B})\$ is at its maximum than the torque \$\vec{T}\$ is zero, while when the flux \$\phi(\vec{B})\$ is zero than the torque \$\vec{T}\$ is proportional to product of \$i\$.
Is there anyone who can clarify me this issue, please?