I need to connect A motor of 220VAC to single phase connection :Line - Neutral(220VAC - Neutral).
In my country that doesn't exist so in my country we have this : L1-L2-neutral (110VAC - 110VAC "180 degre out of phase" - Neutral).
I would like prove that doesn't matter the way I connect the motor , either Line - Neutral (220VAC - Neutral) or Line1 -Line2 (110VAC - 110VAC "180 degree out of phase" ) .
The following image explain what I try to prove :
So I begin :
Single Phase Connection :
$$ Line1 = 220sen(w+\theta)\\ w = 2\pi f; \theta=0\\ w = 2\pi 60H ;\theta=0\\ w= 377rad/s $$
So potential difference in original single phase instalation would be : $$V=220sen(377rad/s)VAC - 0VAC\\ V=220sen(377rad/s)VAC $$
Now in two phases connection:
$$Line1 = 110sen(w+\theta)\\ w = 2\pi f; \theta=0\\ w = 2\pi 60H ;\theta=0\\ w= 377rad/s\\ Line1=110sen(377rad/s)VAC $$
Line two has 180 degree out of phase:
$$Line2=110sen(377-180)\\$$
By trigonometric Identity:
$$L2=110[sen(377)cos(180)-cos(377)sen(180)]\\ L2 = 110[sen(377)*(-1)-0]\\ L2 = -110sen(377rad/s)$$
Finally we do the difference potential of the two Lines in the two phase conection:
$$V =L1 - L2\\$$ $$V=110sen(377rad/seg) -(-110sen(377rad/seg)\\ = 110[sen(377)+sen(377)\\$$ By trigonometric identity:
$$110[2*sen(\frac{377+377}{2}*cos\frac{377-377}{2})]\\ $$ Solving we get the two phase difference potential:
$$V=220sen(377rad/s) $$
Voltage in motor in single phase connection is the same that voltage in two phase connection.
So, We say it doesn't matter If I connect the motor in this way (220VAC - Neutral) or this way (110VAC -110VAC) and this mathematical demostration prove that.
Am I wrong ? Or Am I perfect in that demostration ?