I was trying to understand the non-ideality of op-amps, and specifically how the input bias current is modeled. The image was taken from a nice Youtube tutorial (Mateo Aboy - DC Offsets).
The input bias current (\$ I_{b+} \$ and \$ I_{b-} \$) are the undesired currents generated from within the op-amp (i.e. a base current or a leakage gate current heading to the first transistor). The op-amp has to have these current inside the op-amp internal circuitry. But when \$ I_{b+} \$ and \$ I_{b-} \$ are modeled with superposition, these bias currents flow through the compensation resistor \$ R_C \$ instead, and none into the op-amp as if the op-amp is ideal.
I can't make sense out of this model: the input bias currents are the currents flowing into (or out of) the inverting or non-inverting input, and there should be a (theoretically) measurable current at the input terminal. There should be a \$ I_{b+} \$ entering a non-inverting input, and a bigger current \$ I_{total} - I_{b+} \$ flowing through \$ R_C \$ into ground (i.e. current divider).
How can one assume \$ I_{b+} \$ existed internal within the op-amp but when modeling the circuit assume it all flows through \$ R_C \$?
[EDIT]
Shouldn't the input bias current shown in the above circuit (b) be modeled a bit more like the following circuit? The D1 diode is an idealized component that takes zero voltage drop and functions to restrict the direction of the current to only flow into the non-inverting input (hence, input bias current)? Otherwise, if without the diode, we'll run into the dilemma where we're modeling an input bias current that does not flow into the input - make no sense.