I am a bit confused about the current flowing in the magnetizing inductance L_m when the switch is off.
I am reading a book(Erickson & Maksimovic, Fundamentals of Power Electronics, 2020), explaining the working principle of isolated SEPIC. It is mentioned that the current in the secondary side will be (I_Lm + I_1) / n, however, this will imply I_1 is all flowing into the coupled winding on the primary side and no current is divided by the branch where magnetizing inductance lies. But if so far I've understood properly, why there will be no current flowing in L_m in this phase?
Can someone help explain it to me? Thanks in advance.
Here did I post the topologies of the converter and its current waveform which I referenced from the book.