# Question about the methodology of calculating the output resistance of a BJT amplifier

I am trying to analyze the following BJT amplifier. When it comes to calculating the output resistance, the instructor's solution simply says "It's Rout=Rc", possibly assuming that by shorting the independent voltage source, the dependent current source becomes zero. That doesn't make sense to me though, since the resistance network of Rb, Rsig, Re and re is not short-circuited. Therefore, there has to be a current across the dependent source and Rout shouldn't be simply equal to Rc. Am I missing something in the methodology? Any help would be appreciated.

Well, with $$\V_{sig}=0\$$, everything on the lower left side of the circuit is tied to ground, and there's no current through any of the resistors. Thus, $$\i_e=0\$$ as well. That means that $$\αi_e=0\$$, so no current flows in the dependent current source. Since the current source is assumed to be ideal, it has infinite output impedance, so that infinite impedance in parallel with $$\R_C\$$ is just $$\R_C\$$.