According to Faraday's Law, in coupled inductors, the magnitude of the induced voltage at the secondary coil is proportional to primary power source's frequency (V2 = w x I1 x M).

On the other hand, even though traditional transformers are basically strongly coupled inductors, the secondary side voltage is not proportional to the frequency.

What have I missed?

  • \$\begingroup\$ Do you follow Spehro's argument? \$\endgroup\$
    – jonk
    May 4 at 5:30

1 Answer 1


The current through the magnetizing inductance is reduced proportional to frequency so it cancels out. Faraday’s law works both ways.

Since the magnetic field density in the core cross section is limiting in typically well designed transformer that means you can get proportionally more power out of a given size transformer at higher frequencies (though increasing core losses with frequency limit how far that goes in practice).


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