I am working through the design procedure for the AOZ2264, to buck 11.5-18V down to 9.8V 640mA. It claims:
The inductor is used to supply constant current to output when it is driven by a switching voltage. For given input and output voltage, inductance and switching frequency together decide the inductor ripple current, which is:
$$ \Delta I_L = \frac {V_O} {f L} \left(1 - \frac {V_O} {V_{IN}} \right) $$
The peak inductor current is:
$$ I_{Lpeak} = I_O + \frac {\Delta I_L} 2 $$
High inductance gives low inductor ripple current but requires a larger size inductor to avoid saturation. Low ripple current reduces inductor core losses. It also reduces RMS current through inductor and switches, which results in less conduction loss. Usually, peak to peak ripple current on inductor is designed to be 30% to 50% of output current.
Let's assume their 50% guideline to be true:
$$ \frac {I_{pkpk}} {I_O} = 0.5 $$ $$ I_{pkpk} = 320 \text{mA} $$ $$ I_{pk} = 160 \text{mA} $$ $$ \Delta I_L = 2(I_{pk} - I_O) = -960 \text{mA} $$
A negative current makes no physical sense. What gives? Did they screw up the wording and actually mean the opposite, that output current is designed to be 30% to 50% of peak to peak ripple current? Or is my interpretation of "peak-to-peak" wrong, and actually when they say "peak-to-peak" that's synonymous with \$ \Delta I_L \$?