As far as I understand, you need potential difference to draw current.
Assuming ideal conditions, we can state that there is no resistance in the path, and therefore the potential difference between the resistor R1 is V1. This potential difference results in a current of V1/R amperes flowing through the circuit. If there were no potential difference, the current would be 0/R amperes, which is equivalent to 0 A.
What I don't understand is this:
I marked two points on the path, P and Q. Assume ideal conditions with no resistance in the wire. In such a scenario, there should be no reason for the potential to drop between P and Q. If there was a potential drop, it would indicate the presence of some resistance, contradicting our initial assumption. Consequently, we conclude that P and Q are at the exact same potential.
What confuses me is how there can be any current flow between P and Q when there is no potential difference between them. I am aware that this model is an oversimplification and represents an idealized scenario. I am not questioning the real-world implications; instead, I am specifically asking about the occurrence of current under these ideal conditions and how it manages to pass through in order to reach the load. How is this explained in the theory itself?
I want to clarify something:
People have been saying that P and Q are actually the same point in space, so there cannot be any current between them (no area, no current; makes sense). This might be the explanation from a circuit theory point of view. However, Ohm's Law doesn't state that. People have also been saying that Ohm's Law defines current in a non-zero resistive path (which I've never seen as a constraint in Ohm's Law before). If we include that condition, then we are good. Otherwise we have a problem. Any theory (whatever it may be) should be valid within its realm of validity (otherwise, it is logically contradictory, let alone mathematically). Can you think of any violation of Newton's Law or any place where Newton's Law cannot explain the phenomenon under sufficient assumptions and within the realm of its validity? I don't think so. The same must be true for Ohm's Law. As far as I know the law, there is nothing that lies outside the definition of the law. There is a resistive path with zero resistance, a load, and a voltage source, so tell me the current between these two points? Better question is "Why is there a current between these two points? Can your theory explain that?" People have also been suggesting checking out superconductors (which are fun and I like them), but I don't think that answers the question.