The bandwidth of inverting opamp is lesser than non-inverting opamp. If both configurations have equal closed loop gain and also Gain-Bandwidth product (GBW) for opamp is constant for both cases (which it will be since GBW does not depend on external configuration) then :
For non-inverting opamp : GBW = closed loop gain * cutoff frequency
For inverting opamp : GBW = |closed loop gain+1| * cutoff frequency
Here cutoff frequency represents the 3-dB bandwidth of the circuit. So for constant GBW, inverting opamp has lesser cutoff frequency or 3-dB bandwidth.
What is the intuitive explanation for this ? And from where is this +1 coming in inverting configuration ?