Timeline for Why Op amp amplifier's voltage difference zero? [duplicate]
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S May 29, 2018 at 5:33 | history | suggested | Mussé Redi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Improved grammar.
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| May 28, 2018 at 19:21 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S May 29, 2018 at 5:33 | |||||
| Dec 1, 2014 at 15:49 | history | closed |
Ignacio Vazquez-Abrams The Photon Chetan Bhargava Daniel Grillo Matt Young |
Duplicate of Why is the voltage across the inputs of an ideal OP Amp zero? | |
| Dec 1, 2014 at 1:22 | comment | added | George Herold | I can only give negative feedback and that may (or may not) help you. :^) (Oh and don't believe everything your Prof's tell you.) | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:58 | answer | added | placeholder | timeline score: 11 | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:55 | answer | added | Roger C. | timeline score: 2 | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:50 | comment | added | Spehro 'speff' Pefhany | If the professor actually said exactly what you wrote inside the quotes then he misspoke or there is some particular context that is missing. | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:45 | review | Close votes | |||
| Dec 1, 2014 at 15:49 | |||||
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:44 | comment | added | Anklon | I understand that when output going to cross the limit of bias voltage it sends negative feedback and so voltage difference become very small . But when output voltage is less then bias voltage , like when input voltage is ac then output voltage varies across zero.How this output sends negative feedback as it is less then max output voltage an op amp can provide. Shouldn't it reach max value first ? | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:29 | answer | added | Andy aka | timeline score: 6 | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:27 | comment | added | EM Fields | Please see my answer to a similar question here | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 18:12 | history | asked | Anklon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |