Skip to main content

Timeline for Why the integral is zero

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

9 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Dec 3, 2015 at 14:38 comment added Arsenal @Chu I can't say much more, maybe it helps if you think how large the area of a half cycle is with increasing frequency. It will get smaller and smaller. (Maybe this helps a bit)
Dec 3, 2015 at 12:38 comment added Chu @Arsenal, I'm not sure. sin(wT) could occur any part of the sinusoid so the accumulated area could as much as +/- a half cycle. Without a 1/T coefficient, there's no averaging
Dec 3, 2015 at 12:19 comment added Arsenal @Chu yeah that was a bit short-sighted in hindsight. I've updated my answer to make the point clear. It cannot be a long way from zero for higher omegas.
Dec 3, 2015 at 12:18 history edited Arsenal CC BY-SA 3.0
update because of comments
Dec 3, 2015 at 11:02 comment added Chu @Arsenal, but you've assumed a value for T. There is no such specification in the original question - both w and T are free to wander. So the integral could be a long way from zero
Dec 3, 2015 at 10:36 comment added Arsenal @Chu I'm not saying that it will be 0, it just tends to be very close to 0, so close that for practical purposes it can be neglected (this is a common simplification to make things solvable for humans). FMarazzi has actually given a better analysis of the upper bound of the result.
Dec 3, 2015 at 10:00 comment added Chu If T is arbitrary, the area under sin(wt) will, generally, be non-zero. There must be another constraint.
Dec 3, 2015 at 9:11 comment added user59419 Thanks. Your question definitely makes sense and that's exactly my problem because range of T and w is not given and only condition that wT>>1 is mentioned. I was thinking what if T=1000 and w=1 then the integral is not zero.
Dec 3, 2015 at 9:07 history answered Arsenal CC BY-SA 3.0