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Sep 20, 2020 at 14:20 answer added schnedan timeline score: 0
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Nov 10, 2019 at 5:38 answer added Neil_UK timeline score: 0
Nov 10, 2019 at 3:26 comment added analogsystemsrf with finite risetimes, say T, there will be a NULL in the response at F = 1/T. Why? because that ramp, convolved with a sinusoid of F frequency, will precisely integrate to ZERO.
Nov 9, 2019 at 18:10 answer added The Photon timeline score: 1
Nov 9, 2019 at 18:04 comment added The Photon Your green curve also shows a steep fall-off about 1 decade out from where the blue curve does, just as you would expect from the formula. But this is an empirical rule of thumb, not really an exact formula. Some other source might give \$f_{knee}=0.7/t_{rise}\$ for example. Or you might need a different constant factor if you use the 20-80 rise-time instead of the 10-90 rise-time, etc.
Nov 9, 2019 at 17:50 review First posts
Nov 9, 2019 at 18:42
Nov 9, 2019 at 17:47 history asked WhatToDo CC BY-SA 4.0