Timeline for Why does a resistor have this value in a circuit with an operational amplifier?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 11, 2021 at 0:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackElectronix/status/1391905923933917184 | ||
| May 10, 2021 at 7:30 | history | became hot network question | |||
| May 10, 2021 at 2:12 | comment | added | jonk | @FabiánRomo I'm so glad to hear that all this settled back in, after some years! It's wonderful when just a reminder or two is all that's needed to get things back into place! And it's a good reason that justifies this site and the time that people put into it, too! | |
| May 10, 2021 at 1:06 | vote | accept | Fabián Romo | ||
| May 10, 2021 at 1:04 | comment | added | Fabián Romo | Yes, you're right, I remember I learned that when I studied op-amps, but had forgotten. Thanks @jonk | |
| May 9, 2021 at 23:59 | answer | added | Spehro 'speff' Pefhany | timeline score: 7 | |
| May 9, 2021 at 23:56 | comment | added | StainlessSteelRat | So 100kΩ || 100kΩ and there is no 50kΩ, so not strange at all. And I though I saw a cosmic black hole pass through here. | |
| May 9, 2021 at 23:39 | comment | added | jonk | It is there because of something called the amplifier bias current. Note that it is about equal to the parallel of those two \$100\:\text{k}\Omega\$ resistors? There's a reason for that. If curious, take a look at a typical bipolar opamp input stage (diff-amp, current mirror, currrent source/sink, and a few bits and pieces around that area.) | |
| May 9, 2021 at 23:30 | history | asked | Fabián Romo | CC BY-SA 4.0 |