Timeline for Why does current noise flow through the parallel combination of R1 and RF in a non-inverting opamp?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 8, 2021 at 11:16 | vote | accept | needbrainscratched | ||
| Jun 30, 2021 at 1:43 | answer | added | Tesla23 | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jun 29, 2021 at 21:09 | comment | added | John Birckhead | The op amp output is a low impedance and in your example, its VF1 is zero volts, the same voltage as your ground. So the two resistors are effectively in parallel. | |
| Jun 29, 2021 at 18:38 | comment | added | needbrainscratched | In the noise model no source is considered so that the output you get is due to noise. | |
| Jun 29, 2021 at 18:37 | comment | added | Hearth | @needbrainscratched What's powering the op amp? | |
| Jun 29, 2021 at 17:28 | comment | added | needbrainscratched | But apart from noise source no other source is present. | |
| Jun 29, 2021 at 16:32 | comment | added | G36 | Simply apply the superposition principle for the "noise source". | |
| Jun 29, 2021 at 16:10 | history | edited | JRE | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 12 characters in body
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| Jun 29, 2021 at 16:02 | history | asked | needbrainscratched | CC BY-SA 4.0 |