I'm having trouble reconciling my understanding of motors and generators.
Let's examine a simple DC motor at rest.
Applying a voltage (\$V_{applied}\$) to the terminals generates a large current and a corresponding large torque which rapidly accelerates the motor shaft and any mechanical load. Let's say the rotor spins counter-clockwise (CCW). As the rotor speeds up, an increasingly larger back-EMF (\$E\$) restricts the current in the windings until motor reaches mechanical equilibrium with the load (no more excess torque to accelerate the load) or until \$E = V_{applied}\$ (the motor's no load max speed).
What happens if we suddenly remove the applied voltage and externally spin the motor at a constant speed in the same direction (CCW)? Now the back-EMF becomes the voltage source, and current flows in the opposite direction (assuming we've shorted the circuit, \$I = E/R_{windings}\$).
Does this current generate a counter-torque that resists the externally-applied rotation of the motor? If so, does this torque and the external power source (such as windmill) reach some equilibrium state like in the motor case?
Side question: In a powerplant where steam spins a generator to produce very big EMF, does the "grid" serve as an additional resistance in the generator's circuit that limits the current?
I've read that motor manufacturers will often characterize their motors using other motors. To test a motor's torque/speed performance, they will mechanically load it with another motor and feed the power generated from the second motor back into the driving motor. Is the 2nd motor's counter-torque (as hypothesized above) what provides a mechanical load on the first motor? Otherwise, the first motor would just spin a dummy mass.