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Why should we modify the voltage source value if the resistor is connected with it directly?i mean,there are two different circuit below ,and their corresponding equivalent circuit.

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As we can see,after equivalizing these circuit,we don't modify the voltage source of the first circuit,but we do modify the voltage source of the second circuit.i want to ask why,why should we modify the voltage source value if the resistor is connected with it directly?

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    \$\begingroup\$ The voltage source changes for same reason as that R4 changes from 6 ohm to 4 ohm... What theory did you use to find the equivalent circuit? \$\endgroup\$
    – Huisman
    Commented Feb 17, 2020 at 15:10
  • \$\begingroup\$ Because the series resistor R4 means no one thing is connected directly across V1. Voltage across R1 will change with current due to R4. \$\endgroup\$
    – DKNguyen
    Commented Feb 17, 2020 at 15:10
  • \$\begingroup\$ You seem to be answering your own question. \$\endgroup\$
    – Andy aka
    Commented Feb 17, 2020 at 15:11
  • \$\begingroup\$ In the 2nd circuit you're skipping an intermediate step. What is the equivalent of voltage source V1 in series with resistor R4? Then what is the equivalent of that 'thing' in parallel with resistor R1? \$\endgroup\$
    – brhans
    Commented Feb 17, 2020 at 15:31

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This problem is about determining the Thevenin equivalent of a voltage source with some external resistors.

In general, the Thevenin voltage will be the open-circuit voltage of the network you're simplifying.

In the first case, the open-circuit voltage is exactly equal to the original source voltage, because the output terminals are directly across the source.

In the second case, the open-circuit voltage is less than the original source voltage because the output is taken by a voltage divider formed from R4 and R1.

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