I am currently studying the textbook The Art of Electronics, third edition, by Horowitz and Hill. Chapter 1.2 Voltage, current, and resistance says the following:
A large resistor in series (parallel) with a small resistor has the resistance of the larger (smaller) one, roughly. So you can “trim” the value of a resistor up or down by connecting a second resistor in series or parallel: to trim up, choose an available resistor value below the target value, then add a (much smaller) series resistor to make up the difference; to trim down, choose an available resistor value above the target value, then connect a (much larger) resistor in parallel. For the latter you can approximate with proportions – to lower the value of a resistor by 1%, say, put a resistor 100 times as large in parallel.
This explanation seems contradictory to me:
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to trim up, choose an available resistor value below the target value, then add a (much smaller) series resistor to make up the difference
The author said that a large resistor in series with a small resistor has the resistance of the larger one, roughly. So why would using a resistor below the target value, and then placing it in series with an even smaller resistor, be equivalent to a large resistor that satisfies our target value?
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to trim down, choose an available resistor value above the target value, then connect a (much larger) resistor in parallel
The author said that a large resistor in parallel with a small resistor has the resistance of the smaller one, roughly. So why would using a resistor of value above the target value, and then placing it in parallel with an even larger resistor, be equivalent to a small resistor that satisfies out target value?
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to lower the value of a resistor by 1%, say, put a resistor 100 times as large in parallel.
And how does the reasoning then lead to this?
Perhaps I am misinterpreting what the authors are saying here. I would greatly appreciate it if people would please take the time to clarify this.